Saturday, May 17, 2008

Kant on Senses...

Kant tries to discuss how humans have senses that only are significant to them, he brings Locke's past philosophy as an example when he says, "Long before Locke's time, but assuredly since him, it has been generally assumed and granted without detriment to the actual existence of external things that many of their predicates may be said to belong, not to the things in themselves, but to their appearances, and to have no proper existence outside our representation." Kant gives examples of what he means by saying things like heat, color, and taste are all ideas we have, but may not hold ground outside of our existence. I did my best to try and understand what he was trying to say, and translated it best i could along with i agree that what he says is generally true on the subject at hand.

2 comments:

Liz Meza (Philosophy) said...

I agree with kant, that humans haves senses that are only significant to them. Each individual are different. We all have our own senses.

Jimmy VanValen said...

i kind of agree there is no way of knowing if an experience shared by two people affected each person the same way.

jimmy